I’m not saying the conditions weren’t horrible just that they were better than prerevolutionary Russia and China where the slavery wasn’t virtual.
Is it so outlandish to postulate that with higher standards of living as a starting point, the point at which violent revolution becomes acceptable recourse for falling standards would be higher as well?
Conditions in Cuba were terrible. They virtually had indented servitude and slavery.
I’m not saying the conditions weren’t horrible just that they were better than prerevolutionary Russia and China where the slavery wasn’t virtual.
Is it so outlandish to postulate that with higher standards of living as a starting point, the point at which violent revolution becomes acceptable recourse for falling standards would be higher as well?