• dontcarebear @lemmy.world
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    9 months ago

    If you’ve talking about the hospital, the IDF provided proof from intelligence footage and al-jazeera showing it was a misfire, and it hit a parking lot, not the actual hospital.

    Otherwise, what IDF is doing is bombing where they know there are Hamas terrorists, and they don’t notify the Palestinian civilians to get out of the way.

    I don’t know if that’s a war crime, especially since the IDF told Palestinian civilians to go south, but human shields is an issue too. A moral one.

    Or maybe I’m misinformed and you know something I don’t, or we disagree on something.

    Please elaborate.

    • NoneOfUrBusiness@kbin.social
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      9 months ago

      No I’m not talking about that one. Remember a week or so ago when they designated evacuation spots that would be safe from airstrikes then airstriked those locations? Remember when they bombed trucks full of people evacuating south, as ordered, along designated safe routes? According to my understanding, these are blatant war crimes.

    • MonsterHighStan@kbin.social
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      9 months ago

      According to this interview with someone from the Human Rights Watch, it is considered a war crime (if I understand it correctly):

      The laws of war require armies to avoid deliberately targeting civilians, and also to avoid attacks that by their nature cannot distinguish between civilians and combatants. In particular, in Gaza, because it’s such a densely populated urban area, when you fire explosive weapons on a massive scale, it’s predictable that civilians will die. It’s predictable that children will die.

      • dontcarebear @lemmy.world
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        9 months ago

        My source is https://ihl-databasrs.icrc.org and https://www.icrc.org (international red cross).

        And naturally some wikipedia to help, but I only quote from the red cross. Feel free to check the links.

        Hamas is in clear violation of all the articles of the 3rd common article of the Geneva convention. Every single section. However, the law doesn’t apply since they never agreed to be bound by them or sign the accord.

        I did not see any article that states that if your enemy isn’t bound by the Geneva convention, then it means you aren’t too.

        The 1987 additional to the Geneva protocol at 1977 also states in article 3 section 1 that “nothing in this protocol shall be invoked for the purpose of affecting the sovereignty of a state or the responsibility of the government, by all legitimate means, to maintain or re-establish law and order in the state or to defend the national unity and territorial integrity of the state.”

        This would explain the repeating political statement: “Israel has the right to defend itself”, as it matches this section.

        Also, during the original signing of the Geneva article 3, France and Britain inserted section C paragraph 1 “Scope of the application of common article”.

        And this states verbatim - "Common article 3 does not provide a detailed definition of its scope of application, nor does it contain a list of criteria for identifying the situations in which it is meant to apply. It merely stipulates that ‘[I]n the cas of armed conflict not of an international character occuring in the territory of one of the high contracting parties’, certain provisions must be respected by the parties of the conflict.

        So this is quite the rabbit hole in terms of the law.

        I will read further into this, but it seems that saying the city is dense makes them guilty is a claim for court, and a guess, not a ruling. It doesn’t also clearly let’s Israel off the hook, as definitions can sway the lettering.

        Also, maybe I’m missing some addendums. Don’t know, I’m not a lawyer.

        Laws aside though, this is still an awful situation.