How so? That is a historical precedent, not a tangible benefit.
IANAL, but based on what I’ve read, my understanding that ‘historical precedent’ is legal and can be argued for in international court of law, when it comes to these kind of issues. It is why it is mentioned so often.
Considering the French had already ceeded/gave the islands to Spain (which Argentina then inherited from), your comment does not hold weight.
How so? That is a historical precedent, not a tangible benefit. Can you even name one?
IANAL, but based on what I’ve read, my understanding that ‘historical precedent’ is legal and can be argued for in international court of law, when it comes to these kind of issues. It is why it is mentioned so often.
I’m asking for practical advantages, not an interpretation of international law.