I just think that as time goes on the degree of material suffering before revolution is going to get lessened. Conditions in Cuba and Venezuela before the revolution were no where as bad as they were in prerevolutionary China or Russia.
I’m not saying the conditions weren’t horrible just that they were better than prerevolutionary Russia and China where the slavery wasn’t virtual.
Is it so outlandish to postulate that with higher standards of living as a starting point, the point at which violent revolution becomes acceptable recourse for falling standards would be higher as well?
I just think that as time goes on the degree of material suffering before revolution is going to get lessened. Conditions in Cuba and Venezuela before the revolution were no where as bad as they were in prerevolutionary China or Russia.
Conditions in Cuba were terrible. They virtually had indented servitude and slavery.
I’m not saying the conditions weren’t horrible just that they were better than prerevolutionary Russia and China where the slavery wasn’t virtual.
Is it so outlandish to postulate that with higher standards of living as a starting point, the point at which violent revolution becomes acceptable recourse for falling standards would be higher as well?