• deadlock@lemmy.world
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    9 months ago

    And then there’s me, always setting my alarm clocks to some odd numbers like 7:03 on purpose. Don’t really know what that purpose is, but hey :)

    • ilega_dh@feddit.nl
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      9 months ago

      I’ve been doing this for years as well since I once saw a calendar notification (which is at 9:00 for an all-day activity) stop my alarm after ringing for a second. Been paranoid ever since…

    • Agent641@lemmy.world
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      9 months ago

      Omg same! I’ve been doing it on purpose since I was 12. Never a round number or multiple of 5. Changing it slightly every few days.

  • MeatsOfRage@lemmy.world
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    9 months ago

    Probably moreso in the past 10 years as more and more people moved to using their smart phone as an alarm which has exact time unlike our bedside clocks which had a couple minutes of range depending on when you set it.

    • Agent641@lemmy.world
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      9 months ago

      The year is 2071. You wake up to a dull vibration from your neuralink chip. Strange, its 2am.

      You dont realize it, but a power failure and faulty CMOS battery on a mainboard somewhere has caused a server to reboot with the wrong BIOS time. Before NTP gets a chance to update the internal clock, the server sends out what it thinks is a massive backlog of alarm triggers, waking almost every sleeping person on the planet simultaneously.

      Somewhere in the abyssal zone, the sudden collective pulse of mental energy causes an ancient evil to stir and wake from its million year slumber. The age of sleep has ended, only a perverse and endless twilight nightmare can now fill Hypnos’ void in the minds of men.

      • Revan343@lemmy.ca
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        9 months ago

        The year is 2071. You wake up to a dull vibration from your neuralink chip. Strange, its 2am.

        You dont realize it, but a power failure and faulty CMOS battery on a mainboard somewhere has caused a server to reboot with the wrong BIOS time. Before NTP gets a chance to update the internal clock, the server sends out what it thinks is a massive backlog of alarm triggers, waking almost every sleeping person on the planet simultaneously.

        Somewhere in the abyssal zone, the sudden collective pulse of mental energy causes an ancient evil to stir and wake from its million year slumber. The age of sleep has ended, only a perverse and endless twilight nightmare can now fill Hypnos’ void in the minds of men.

        Roll for initiative

    • yesman@lemmy.world
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      9 months ago

      The time isn’t exact. I don’t know why it drifts, they should be able to use the GPS signal, but I have two devices, one with an alarm, and another with a notification that goes off at the same time. They’re never more than a second apart, but which one goes off first changes.

  • key@lemmy.keychat.org
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    9 months ago

    It’d be interesting to see how the distribution of sleep and awake times has changed over the last centuries. A decade or two ago this would have easily still been true but much less so since the typical nightstand alarm clock wouldnt have time synchronization. Further back alarms would be worse and worse so less true. I imagine if there’s even church bells and specific hours when people need to work it makes sense awakening would be more tightly clustered than sleep time. I wonder when the trend would reverse if ever, maybe before indoor lighting but maybe before industrialization as a whole.

  • Lemvi@lemmy.sdf.org
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    9 months ago

    I don’t see why that would be true. People generally fall asleep about as often as they wake up, so the number of people who fall asleep at the same time and the number of people who wake up at the same time, averaged over all moments of a day, should be pretty much equal.

    • Oiconomia@feddit.deOP
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      9 months ago

      Na you have large population centers where a lot of alarm clocks go off at exactly 7am. The same people fall asleep over a longer interval of time the night before.

      • bfg9k@lemmy.world
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        9 months ago

        that is a good point I didn’t think about alarm clocks

        I suppose every half hour there would be a surge of people waking up lol

      • Lemvi@lemmy.sdf.org
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        9 months ago

        Of course there are moments where more people awake at the same time than fall asleep at the same time. In the second 07:00:00 , yeah, more people awake than fall asleep. The same isn’t true for 22:13:35. And if you look at all seconds of the day you will find that on average, each second the amount of people that fall asleep is roughly equal to the amount of people waking up.

        What you are talking about is variance. There is a higher variance in the times of people falling asleep than there is in the times of people waking up. That does not mean that “more people wake up at the same time than fall asleep”. There are times of the day when significantly more people wake up than fall asleep, but as a counterweight, on prettey much all other times, the amount of people falling asleep is slightly higher than the amount of people waking up.

        So actually, it’s the reverse. Given that most people wake up to alarm clocks, if you pick a random time of the day, it is likely that in that second more people fall asleep than wake up

        • Aatube@kbin.social
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          9 months ago

          However, that’s not what the title is saying. The title says that more waking times are lumped at the same second in the morning.

          • Lemvi@lemmy.sdf.org
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            9 months ago

            The title says “There’s more people who wake up at the same second than people who fall asleep at the same second”. One could (and most people seem to) interpret this as “the maximum amount of people waking up at any given second is higher than the maximum amount of people falling asleep at any given second”, which is a statement I agree with. I interpreted it as “The amount of people waking up at any given time is higher than the amount of people falling asleep at the same time”, which is of course false.

            It seems we just weren’t talking about the same thing. You were talking about the maximum values of both distributions, for which the statement is true, while I only considered the distributions’ median and mean values, for which the statement isn’t true.

            I disagree that the post makes clear OP is referring to the max values, but I guess that’s because english is not my first language, and my statistics background likely made me over analyze the statement.